1. Which of the following staining procedure is employed for DNA?
A) Feulgen staining B) Negative staining C) Ziehl Neelsen staining
D) Sudan black B staining
2. Which of the
following inclusion body/bodies are present in Cyanobacteria?
i. Cyanophycin granules
ii. Carboxysomes
iii. Poly metaphosphate
iv. Poly β hydroxy butyrate
A) i and ii B) ii and iii
C) Only iii D) Only iv
3. The following
statements are characteristic of metabolic plasmids.
i. They carry genes for enzymes that degrade aromatic
substances.
ii. They carry genes required for Rhizobium to induce legume
nodulation.
iii. They contain genes that codes for an enterotoxin.
iv. They contain genes coding for antibiotic resistance.
A) i and ii B) ii and iii
C) Only iii D) iii and iv
4. Pick out the false
statement/statements against peptidoglycan of bacteria.
i. The presence of D amino acids protects against
degradation by most peptidases.
ii. D-alanine, D-glutamic acid and mesodiaminopimelic acid,
present only in bacterial
peptidoglycan are not found in other proteins.
iii. Many bacteria replace mesodiaminopimelic acid with
L-lysine.
iv. All bacteria possess the peptide interbridge.
A) i and ii B) ii and iii
C) Only iv D) Only ii
5. Which of the
following statements is/are not true regarding halophiles?
i. Halophiles grow optimally in the presence of NaCl or other
salts at a concentration
above 0.2 M.
ii. Halophilic prokaryotes accumulate enormous quantities of
potassium in order to
remain hypertonic to their environment.
iii. The plasma membrane and cell wall of Halobacterium are
stabilized by low
concentrations of sodium ion.
iv. Enzymes, ribosomes and transport proteins requires high
potassium levels for
stability and activity.
A) i, ii and iii B) ii and iii
C) Only iv D) Only i
6. Match the given
sterilant or disinfectants with their efficacy and choose the best answer
given below.
Sterilant/Disinfectant Efficacy
i. Betapropiolactone (BPL) a. Plastic wraps
ii. Ethylene oxide b. Laboratory equipment
iii. Hexachlorophene c. Safety cabinets
iv. Glutaraldehyde d. Vaccines
v. Vapourised hydrogen peroxide e. Skin antiseptic
A) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – e, v – a
B) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
C) i – d, ii – a, iii – e, iv – b, v – c
D) i – c, ii – e, iii – a, iv – b, v – d
7. Match the
antibiotics to their mechanism of action and choose the answer given below.
Antibiotic Mode of
action
i. Macrolides a. Inhibits replication
ii. Aminoglycosides b. Inhibits transpeptidation
iii. Sulphonamides c. Interfere with protein synthesis
iv. Penicillins d. Inhibits folic acid synthesis
v. Quinolones e. Peptide chain elongation
A) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – e, v – a
B) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
C) i – e, ii – c, iii – d, iv – b, v – a
D) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – e, v – a
8. Pick out the
statement which is false regarding the accessory pigment of photosynthesis.
A) Phycocyanobilin contains a linear tetrapyrrole attached
to a protein
B) Phycoerythrin is a red pigment with a maximum absorption
of 550 nm
C) Accessory pigments absorbs light in the range absorbed by
the chlorophylls
D) β carotene is present in Cyanobacteria
9. Spikes containing
neuraminidase and haemagglutinin are present in one of the following
viruses.
A) Hepatitis virus A B) Rabies virus
C) Influenza virus D) Pox virus
10. Amanitin, a
mycotoxin, produced by Amanita verna causes the disease
A) Aflatoxicosis B) Ergotism
C) Mushroom poisoning D) Poultry haemorrhagic syndrome
11. Greatest
resolution is obtained by using a lens with
A) Large possible numerical aperture and light of the
shortest wavelength
B) Small possible numerical aperture and light of the
shortest wavelength
C) Large possible numerical aperture and light of the
longest wavelength
D) Small possible numerical aperture and light of the
longest wavelength
12. Thin and
distinctively shaped, Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis is
better identified in
clinical specimens, by using
A) Phase contrast microscope
B) Dark field
microscope
C) Fluorescent microscope
D) Differential interference contrast microscope
13. Which of the
following statement is not true of gel electrophoresis?
A) Charged molecules are placed in an electrical field and
allowed to migrate towards
the positive and negative poles
B) The molecules separate as they move at different rates
due to their differences in
charge and size
C) As DNA is negatively charged, it is loaded into wells at
the negative pole of the gel
and it migrates towards the positive
D) Each fragment’s migration rate is directly proportional
to the log of its molecular weight
14. Choose the
techniques which are effective in the purification of a virus preparation.
i. Differential centrifugation
ii. Gradient centrifugation
iii. SDS PAGE
iv. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
A) i and ii B) ii and iii C) iii and iv D) i and iv
15. Which of the
following statements is/are not true of sedimentation?
i. The sedimentation rate of a given particle will be zero
when the density of the
particle and the surrounding medium are equal.
ii. The greater the frictional coefficient is, the slower a
particle will move.
iii. The greater the centrifugal force is, the slower the
particle sediments.
iv. The denser the biological buffer system is, the slower
the particle will move in a
centrifugal field.
A) i and ii B) i and iii C) Only iii D) Only iv
16. Caesium chloride,
widely employed in the density gradient centrifugation, is used for the
i. Banding of DNA
ii. Isolation of plasmids
iii. Isolation of nucleoproteins
iv. Isolation of viruses
A) Only i B) i and ii C) i, ii, iii and iv D) Only iv
17. _________ are
strong exchangers, as they are totally ionized at all normal working pH
values which are
often used in the ion exchange chromatography.
A) Sulphonate and quaternary ammonium
B) Carboxylate and diethylammonium
C) Sulphonate and diethylammonium
D) Carboxylate and quaternary ammonium
18. Match the
substance and the reagent used in Colorimetric and UV absorption assays.
Substance Reagent
i. Amino acids a. Diphenylamine
ii. Cysteine b. Bial
iii. Protein c. Ellman reagent
iv. DNA d. Ninhydrin
v. RNA e. Coomassie blue
A) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – e, v – a
B) i – d, ii – c, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
C) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – b, v – a
D) i – e, ii – d, iii – c, iv – b, v – a
19. Match the
following and choose the best answer given below.
Spectroscopic technique Application
i. NMR a. Study metallo proteins
ii. EPR b. Imaging of live samples
iii. SPR c. Identification of sample constituents
iv. Infrared spectroscopy d. Assess particle size
v. Fluorescence spectroscopy e. Study the kinetics of
antigen antibody interaction
A) i – e, ii – b, iii – c, iv – d, v – a
B) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a, v – e
C) i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – a, v – b
D) i – b, ii – a, iii – e, iv – c, v – d
20. Isolation of
eukaryotic mRNA from a mixture of total cellular RNA is carried out by
_________ technique.
A) Affinity chromatography
B) Paper chromatography
C) Thin layer chromatography
D) Immuno blotting
technique
21. Which of the
following statements is/are correct relating to passive immunity?
i. Preformed antibodies are administered.
ii. There is no latent period.
iii. It involves the active functioning of the immune
system.
iv. Immunity is long lasting.
A) i and ii B) ii and iii
C) iii and iv D) Only iv
22. The following
statement is/are not true regarding superantigen like Staphylococcus
enterotoxin.
i. They activate a large number of T cells irrespective of
their antigen specificity.
ii. They bind outside the antibody binding groove directly
to the lateral aspect of TCR
β chain.
iii. They bind to the β heterodimer groove of the MHC molecules through the
V regions of TCR α and βchains.
iv. They are highly resistant to proteases and denaturation
by CD4+T cells.
A) i and ii B) iii and iv C) Only iii D) Only iv
23. Complementarity
Determining Regions (CDRs) are present in the
A) Fc fragment of antibody
B) Fab fragment of antibody
C) Hinge region of antibody
D) CH1 and CL domains
24. Which of the
following statement/statements is/are characteristic of secretory IgA (SIgA) ?
i. Secretory piece present in SIgA is not produced by
lymphoid cells.
ii. Secretory piece is believed to protect SIgA from
denaturation by bacterial proteases.
iii. SIgA (MW about 4,00,000) is a smaller molecule than
serum IgA.
iv. IgA fixes complement.
A) i and ii B) ii and iii C) iii and iv D) Only iii
25. The following is
an/are example/examples of heterophile agglutination tests.
i. Weil-Felix test
ii. Paul-Bunnel test
iii. Streptococcus MG agglutination test
iv. Widal test
A) i, ii B) i, ii, iii C) Only iii D) i, iii, iv
26. Complement
participates in
i. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
ii. Type II hypersensitivity reaction
iii. Type III hypersensitivity reaction
iv. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
A) i and ii B) ii and iii C) Only i D) iii and iv
27. Which HLA Class
molecule/molecules is/are responsible for the graft-versus-host
response?
A) HLA Class I
B) HLA Class II
C) HLA Class III
D) HLA Class I and Class III
28. Which of the
following acts as an adjuvant in DPT vaccine?
A) Freund’s incomplete adjuvant
B) Freund’s complete adjuvant
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Aluminium hydroxide
29. Which of the
deficiency leads to Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
A) T and B cell B) T cell C) B cell D) Complement
30. Which of the
following statement/statements is/are true of tumour antigens?
i. Oncofetal antigens are found in embryonic and malignant
cells.
ii. Carcinoembryonic antigen can be detected in the serum of
patients with colon of
carcinoma.
iii. The tumour associated transplantation antigens of virus
induced tumours is virus
specific.
iv. The tumour antigens are absent in the corresponding normal
cells of the host.
A) i, ii and iii B) i and ii C) ii and iii D) Only iv
31. O-linked
oligosaccharides are added to the serine or threonine residues of proteins
post-translationally
in the Golgi apparatus while N-linked oligosaccharides are added
cotranslationally to
the asparagine residues of proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum.
Which one of them can
influence the folding of the protein the most?
A) O-linked oligosaccharides
B) N-linked oligosaccharides
C) Both O-linked and N-linked oligosaccharides show equal
influence
D) Both O-linked and N-linked oligosaccharides cannot
influence
32. Of the following
lipid components, which one increases the fluidity of the cell membrane
the most?
A) Cis unsaturated fatty acids B) Trans unsaturated fatty
acids
C) Long chain saturated fatty acids D) Medium chain
saturated fatty acids
33. When a protein
denatures
A) Primary, secondary and tertiary structures are altered
and its function is lost
B) Secondary and tertiary structure are altered, but primary
structure and its functions
are retained
C) Secondary and tertiary structure are altered, but primary
structure is intact, though
its function is lost
D) Primary, secondary and tertiary structures is intact, but
loses its function because
of the changes in quaternary structure
34. A researcher
prepared a plant extract which when added to the enzyme pepsin, the
enzyme activity
reduced to 2/3rd of its original activity. When double the amount of
protein substrate was
added to the mixture, the enzyme activity came back to the original
level. What would be
the maximum reaction velocity observed in the presence of the
plant extract?
(Maximum reaction velocity in the absence of the extract is designated
as Vmax)
A) Vmax B) 2 Vmax C) 2/3 Vmax D) 1/3 Vmax
35. Receptors of
peptide hormones are
A) Cytoplasmic B) Nuclear C) Transmembrane D) All of the
above
36. Scientist have
identified a new species of plant from Western Ghats. To study its
uniqueness, they
isolated the DNA and prepared a cot value curve. Which of the
following information
is not possible to get, on analyzing the cot value curve?
A) Idea about genome size and complexity
B) Understanding the relative proportion of single copy and
repetitive sequence
C) Idea on how many times a sequence repeats itself
D) Determination of exact GC content
37. Which of the
following molecule is derived from cholesterol?
A) Prostaglandin B) Taurocholic acid C) Somatostatin D)
Stearic acid
38. Ammonium sulphate
precipitation is commonly employed during the isolation of proteins.
Which of the
following technique can be used to remove ammonium sulphate from the
solution after
ammonium sulphate precipitation ?
A) Lyophilization B) Chromatography C) Dialysis D)
Electrophoresis
39. In some
inflammatory and autoimmune diseases, some arginine residues in histone
proteins are replaced
by citrulline residues. These altered proteins can be easily
separated by
electrophoresis. What is the change you can observe in their electrophoretic
mobility ?
A) Citrullinated proteins move faster than the native
proteins towards the anode
B) Citrullinated proteins move slower than the native
proteins towards the anode
C) Citrullinated proteins give multiple bands when compared
to the native proteins
D) None of the above
40. Which of the
following statement about fructose is true ?
A) Most predominant conformation of fructose in solution is β fructopyranose
B) In polysaccharides, fructose is seen in their furanose
form
C) Fructose is hygroscopic
D) All of the above
41. The linking
number of DNA
A) Is a topological property
B) Determines the degree of supercoiling
C) Is the sum of Twist (Tw) and Writhe (Wr)
D) All the above
42. The Klenow
fragment of DNA polymerase I has
A) 5' –
3' exonuclease activity B)
3'– 5' exonuclease activity
C) Very high processivity D) Helicase activity
43. The role of σ 70
(sigma-70) in prokaryotic transcription is
A) Binding DNA template
B) Binding regulatory sequences
C) Forming phosphodiester bonds
D) Recognizing the promoter and initiating RNA synthesis
44. Eukaryotic RNA
polymerase II transcribes
A) 18s rRNA B) tRNA C) mRNA D) 5s rRNA
45. Which of the
following statement is incorrect regarding splicing ?
A) Splicing is accomplished by two transesterification
reactions
B) At the end of splicing, the intron is released in the
form of a lariant
C) The 2'– OH of the adenine at the branch site attacks the 3' – splice site
D) snRNAs in spliceosome catalyze the splicing of mRNA
precursors
46. Lac repressor
protein in the absence of inducer binds to the operator and thereby
A) Activates transcription
B) Blocks transcription
C) Attenuates transcription
D) None of the above
47. The phenomenon by
which some t-RNA molecules recognize more than one codon is
because of
A) Watson-Crick base pairing
B) Wobble base pairing
C) Hoogsteen base pairing
D) Purine-purine base pairing
48. Shine-Dalgarno
sequence is
A) Centered about 10 nucleotides on the 5'side of the initiator codon
B) A part of prokaryotic m-RNA
C) A purine rich region
D) All the above
49. The enzyme which
can be used to synthesize DNA from mRNA by providing an oligo(dT)
primer that pairs
with the poly (A) sequence at the 3'end of eukaryotic mRNA is
A) Reverse transcriptase
B) Restriction endonuclease
C) Topoisomerase
D) Primase
50. The plasmids which
can be used for introducing new genes into plant cells are
A) R plasmids B) Col plasmids C) Ti plasmids D) F plasmids
51. Genes from higher
organisms may be introduced into microbial cells so that the recipients
become capable of
synthesizing foreign proteins which are described as
A) Isomeric proteins
B) Conjugated proteins
C) Heterologous proteins
D) Fusion proteins
52. The key factor/s
affecting the hyphal morphology in submerged culture are
i. The concentration of spores in the medium
ii. Design of the medium
iii. Shear conditions
iv. Volume of the medium
Select the correct option from the following.
A) Only i B) Only ii and iii
C) Only i, ii and iii D) All the above i, ii, iii, iv
53. The washout of
the inoculum before an adapted culture is established is the main
difficulty in using a
A) Continuous-enrichment process
B) Batch-enrichment process
C) Fed-batch-enrichment process
D) All the above
54. The SSF
bioreactor in which the bed is static or mixed only very infrequently (i.e.,
once
per day) and air is
blown forcefully through the bed is typically referred to as
A) Tray bioreactor
B) Packed-bed bioreactor
C) Rotating drum bioreactor
D) Gas-solid fluidized bed bioreactor
55. Wine obtained
from which one amongst the following is whitish and effervescent liquid,
both of which
properties derive from the fact that the fermenting organisms are numerous
and alive when consumed?
A) Malus pumila
B) Artemesia absinthium
C) Vitis vinifera
D) Elaeis guiniensis
56. Who first of all
proposed the utilization of microorganisms as one of the solutions to
the oil recovery issue?
A) J. W. Beckman in 1926
B) C. E. ZoBell in 1946
C) D. R. Schmitt in 1975
D) A. A. Grigoryan
57. An organic
compound when exposed to a two-phase immiscible system, it will dispense
itself between these
two phases in a definite ratio called as
A) Partition coefficient
B) Segregation coefficient
C) Distribution coefficient
D) Diffusion coefficient
58. The efficiency of
solid particles as antifoam entities depends mainly on their
i. Hydrophobicity
ii. Shape
iii. Size
iv. Volume
Select the correct option from the following.
A) Only i and iii B) Only ii and iii C) Only i and iv D)
Only i, ii and iii
59. ‘Porter’ and
‘Stout’ are varieties of
A) Wine B) Beer C) Vinegar D) None of the above
60. Which one amongst
the following is one of the method of enzyme microencapsulation?
A) Pervaporation B) Impingement C) Perstraction D)
Coacervation
61. Which gene is
responsible for Methicillin resistance in Staphylococcus aureus?
A) mec A gene B) Van A gene C) Van B gene D) erm gene
62. An invitro
virulence test which is used for the toxigenicity testing of Diphtheria?
A) Schick test B) Dick test C) Elek’s gel precipitation test
D) Sub cutaneous test
63. Name the
causative agent of diarrhea which is common in persons from developed
countries visiting
endemic areas.
A) ETEC B) EHEC C) EPEC D) EAEC
64. Which of the
following is a specific test for syphilis?
A) RPR B) TPHA C) VDRL D) All of these
65. Which one of the
following is a non-neural vaccine for Rabies?
A) Semple vaccine
B) BPL vaccine
C) Infant mouse brain vaccine
D) Purified chick embryo cell vaccine
66. Covid 19 is a
A) Non-enveloped RNA virus B) Enveloped DNA virus
C) Enveloped RNA virus D) Non-enveloped DNA virus
67. Which of the
following is a non-cultivable fungus ?
A) Candida albicans B) Rhinosporidium seeberi C) Actinomyces
D) Blastomyces dermatitidis
68. Asexual
reproductive structures of Zygomycetes are
A) Sporangiospore B) Ascospore C) Basidiospore D) Fungi
imperfecti
69. Which method of
peripheral smear examination is useful for species identification of
Malaria ?
A) Thick smear B) Thin smear C) QBC D) Both thick and thin
70. Kala azar is
transmitted to humans by the bite of
A) Mosquito B) Tsetse fly C) Tick D) Sand fly
71. A yeast genus
commonly found in fresh ground beef, poutry, kefir grains and caco
beans, whose generic
name means ‘shining white’
A) Pichia B) Candida C) Saccharomyces D) Rhodotorula
72. Depression in pH
value of meat upon completion of rigor mortis is due to the conversion
of 1% glycogen to
A) Sialic acid B) Acetic acid C) Lactic acid D) Gluconic
acid
73. Choose the
correct statement.
A) At any temperature the ability of micro-organism to grow
is reduced as the water
activity is lowered.
B) Range of water activity over which growth occurs is
greatest at the optimum
temperature of growth.
C) The presence of nutrients increases the range of water
activity over which the
organisms can survive.
D) All of these
74. Which of the
following is not a prebiotic ?
A) Inulin B) Fructooligosaccharide C) Lactose D) Lactulose
75. _______ produced
during colonic fermentation determine the pH of colonic lumen.
A) Short chain fatty
acids B) Lactic acid
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None
76. 12-D concept is
related to the probability of survival of __________ in foods.
A) Clostridium botulinum B) Bacillus strearothermophilus
C) Brevibacterium D) All of these
77. The presence of
__________ in Modified Atmospheric Package (MAP) gases can
reduce the risk of
botulism in seafood.
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Helium D) Nitrogen
78. The Z value for
most of the bacteria ranges between
A) 40 – 70°C B) 30 – 40°C C) 20 – 25°C D) 5 – 10°C
79. _________ are
primary group of organisms involved in sauerkraut fermentation.
A) Yeast B) Lactic acid bacteria C) Fungus D) Spore forming
bacteria
80. Antimicrobial
activity of hydrogen peroxide is attributed to
A) Strong oxidizing effect on the bacterial cell
B) Destruction of basic molecular structures of cell
proteins
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None
81. Secondary
metabolites are produced during __________ phase of growth.
A) Exponential B) Stationary C) Trophophase D) Lag
82. Inner surface of
bioreactors are coated with __________ to limit wall growth.
A) Teflon B) Steel C) Brass D) Glass
83. Carbon source
that can be used for production of single cell protein
A) Whey B) Cellulose C) Hydrocarbons D) All of these
84. __________ is a
technique where modified fermenters up to 100 dm3 are gently stirred
and broth
continuously removed from the vessel and passed through stainless steel or
ceramic filter.
A) Perfusion culture B) Hollow filter chamber C) Radial flow
fermenter D) Stirred fermenter
85. Yeast _________
is one of the commercially important source of lactase.
A) Saccharomyces boulardi B) Torulopsis C) Pichia D)
Klyveromyces lactis
86. ________ are used
for the circulation of steam and cooling water during the heating
and cooling cycles of
sterilization of the fermenter.
A) Baffles B) Jacket C) Sparger D) Agitator
87. 100 pounds of
yeast can produce ___________ tonnes of protein within 24 hrs.
A) 2.5 B) 25 C) 250 D) 500
88. An optimum
temperature above __________ °C is usually preferred for industrially
important
micro-organisms as it can reduce cooling cost.
A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 37
89. Workers in
factory that work with amylase are at an increased risk of
A) Arteriosclerosis B) Diabetes C) Asthma D) Ascites
90. Example for
catabolic product resulting from primary metabolism
A) Citric acid B) Nucleic acid C) Lactic acid D) Enzyme
91. According to
FSSAI regulations double toned milk should have a minimum fat and SNF
of _________
respectively.
A) 3.0% and 8.0% B) 1.5% and 8.5%
C) 1.5% and 9.0% D) 3.5% and 8.5%
92. Early blowing in
canned dairy products is due to
A) Bacillus B) Coliforms C) Clostridium D) All of these
93. ________ is the
chief immunoglobulin in milk and confers passive immunity.
A) IgA B) IgG C) IgE D) IgM
94. The disappearance
of blue colour in milk during MBRT is due to
A) Removal of oxygen from milk
B) Formation of reducing substance during bacterial
metabolism
C) Both (A) and (B)
D) None
95. A psychrotrophic
bacteria capable of producing thermostable proteases and lipases
causing spoilage in
milk
A) Lactobacillus B) E. Coli C) Pseudomonas D) Leuconostoc
96. To reduce the
microbial load and to encourage whey protein/casein interaction the milk
for ________
manufacture is severely heated to 95°C for 5 min.
A) Cream B) Yoghurt C) Ice cream D) All of these
97. As per FSSAI
microbiological requirement for yeast and mold count in pasteurized
butter are m =
________ and M = _________.
A) 10/g and 100/g B) 50/g and 250/g C) 20/g and 50/g D) 20/g
and 90/g
98. The biochemical
test used to check aroma producing starter culture based on its ability
to produce acetyl
methyl carbinol and diacetyl is
A) Horrell Elliker test B) Hotis test C) Creatine test D)
White Head and Cox test
99. Bacillus cereus
poisoning is an example for
A) Food infection B) Toxi infection C) Food intoxication D)
None
100. Rennet causes
destabilization of casein micelle to _________ and glycomacropeptide.
A) Beta casein B) Alpha casein C) Para k-casein D) None
Answer Key
